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Seems sort of like he was held for as long as he'd have been held if he'd been judged guilty of stealing everything he was accused of stealing, and if he wanted to default himself into prison for that stretch without a trial, the judge was content to oblige him.
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The problem obviously being that then there is never a trial and no one ever proved beyond a reasonable doubt that he was even capable of disclosing the information.

Did he make the claim that he wasn’t capable when he appealed the contempt ruling?

If claiming that would get him released, why wouldn't he? If it wouldn't, how is your question relevant?

Because the point of the contempt charge is to compel someone to obey a court order or ruling. So yes, demonstrating that you cannot comply is generally a relevant defense.

I don’t see any evidence he ever attempted to make that claim.




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